Quick impedance question

 

Silver Member
Username: Alexv305

Tavernier, FL USA

Post Number: 390
Registered: Oct-05
Lets say you have a 2 channel amp that does 100 watts RMS per channel at 2 ohms. Does that mean each channel can take a 2 ohm speaker or a 4 ohm speaker on each channel which as a whole would drop it down to 2 ohms?
 

Silver Member
Username: Van_man

Boston South, MA

Post Number: 869
Registered: Mar-06
Like this?

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Gold Member
Username: Basshead86

Google is your Friend, FL

Post Number: 5004
Registered: Aug-05
once again man....nice chart:-)
 

Silver Member
Username: Logan__tille

Hamilton, Indiana United states

Post Number: 798
Registered: Feb-06
NO they say sony, lol
 

Silver Member
Username: Van_man

Boston South, MA

Post Number: 870
Registered: Mar-06
A picture worth.... And yea, The Sony Logo makes the Newbies feel at home.
 

Silver Member
Username: Logan__tille

Hamilton, Indiana United states

Post Number: 801
Registered: Feb-06
^^^haha^^^
 

Gold Member
Username: Troy81

Tavernier, Fl Us

Post Number: 1021
Registered: Mar-06
lets say, you have a 200 x 2 @ 4
can you run a 4 ohm speaker on each channel or do you have to run an 8 ohm load on each channel,
basically is a two channel amp basically 2 amps in one unless its bridged?
 

Gold Member
Username: Troy81

Tavernier, Fl Us

Post Number: 1022
Registered: Mar-06
and btw alex



i win :-)
 

Silver Member
Username: Van_man

Boston South, MA

Post Number: 871
Registered: Mar-06
lets say, you have a 200 x 2 @ 4
can you run a 4 ohm speaker on each channel
(YES)
Each 4 ohm speaker would get 200 wrms.
If you ran an 8 ohm speaker, then it would recieve @ half or 100wrms per channel.
If you bridged both channels you could get 400wrms X 1 @ 4 ohms, or 2ohms or 1 ohm, or .5 ohms.
This is all hypathetical unless you specify what amp and the specs of it.

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